Can someone elaborate on why the two following networks are I-equivalent?

1) X1 -> X2 -> ... -> Xn

2) X1 <- X2 <- ... <- Xi -> ... -> Xn

asked Jun 17 '14 at 12:47

Dzung%20Nguyen's gravatar image

Dzung Nguyen
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edited Jun 17 '14 at 12:47

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